Thursday, August 21, 2008

Were riots in India always one sided?

Some of my dear friends who also happen to be my colleagues sat together for a farewell drink to another colleague who is going back to London. There were lots of arguments (no discussions) over so many topics under the sky. One of them started out like this - Mr. R said "we Indians have always treated Muslims as 2nd class citizens." Then I had to retort him saying what do you mean by Indians and Muslims – Aren't Muslims in India not Indians?! How can we argue for equality if our own minds don't have a basic sense of equality? But I am sure it was a slip of a tongue from my friend and not what he meant but arguments always get heated when one looks out for mistakes.

To support the theory, though the next argument was more Muslims get killed than Hindoos (I hate using Hindu as a symbol of religion – all Indians are Hindus so using an alternative spelling which by the way is also in the dictionary) during any riots and till now no one has apologized for Godhra aftermath. Then most of us jumped the guns and questioned from Bombay blasts to Godhra massacre to Anti-Sikh riots etc. Although most of us had our own point of views and the argument never ended… but here goes the list from Wikipedia. Interestingly Wikipedia has not included anything other than 1947 and 1984 in the "list of riots"; it is just included in the list of communal violence.

Examples of communalist violence, with strong motivations based on religious identity include:

Does this answer who have been winner and loser in numbers - probably yes. But for me it is a big YES, the riots or communal violence were and are always one sided – not in the side of human beings but some other side.

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